The Boolean expression \(∼(p⇒(∼q))\) is equivalent to :
(a) p ^ q
(b)\( q⇒∼ p\)
(c) p v q
(d) \((∼p)⇒q\)
Please read the guide .
Please answer the question in detail
Correct option is A) p^q
Explaination:: \(∼(p⇒(∼q))\)
as \({p⇒q \ is \ same \ as \ ∼p v q}\)
we get \(∼((∼p) v(∼q)) = \) p^q
Doubtly is an online community for engineering students, offering:
Get the pro version for free by logging in!
5.7k questions
5.1k answers
108 comments
561 users